What is the validity of the marriage of a man to a woman when it became clear on their wedding day that she was not a virgin, so he divorced her secretly, then cohabited with her with the intention of revenge, and after two years they agreed to continue, and he considered his repeated use of the word "my wife" in front of the family as a new contract, and they had children, knowing that seven years have passed in this situation? And what should they do if the marriage is invalid?

The couple has been living in adultery for two years, claiming it is an act of revenge, with the woman's consent. They assert that there is an implicit contract or a legitimate marriage, which is indicative of their whims.

If a man divorces his wife with the first or second divorce, and her waiting period (iddah) expires without him taking her back, then he is not permitted to marry her again except with a new contract and a new dowry. The child born during this period is attributed to them because they believed this marriage to be permissible.

Ibn Taymiyyah held that Muslims are in agreement that for every marriage a husband believes to be permissible, his child is attributed to him therein, and they inherit from each another, even if the marriage was invalid. The child belongs to the bed, and lineage does not depend on the validity of the marriage.