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Is the questioner considered divorced, Islamically, after her divorce in a European court—despite their non-recognition of Islamic marriage—and the subsequent signing of the divorce by the husband, knowing that he still gets drunk and curses religion?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Firstly: It is not permissible to force a woman to marry someone she does not consent to. If she is married without her consent, the marriage is invalid. The matter should be referred to the Sharia court or to scholars in Islamic centers if a court is not available.

Secondly: If the husband apostatizes from Islam before consummation, the marriage is immediately annulled. If it occurs after consummation, the matter depends on his repentance before the end of the waiting period (iddah). If he repents and then reverts to apostasy, the woman has the right to seek divorce from the Sharia court or the Islamic center. As for the condition of being 18 years old for marriage, it is an invalid condition that has no basis in Islamic law.

The woman must return to her country accompanied by a mahram if she lives far from her family after the separation.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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