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Did the divorce take effect on the wife who told her sister the secret before swearing an oath of divorce, and what is the ruling on the husband asking his wife to waive her dower in exchange for his preventing her [from remarrying]?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a husband conditions his wife's divorce upon her performing one of several acts, using the word "or," the divorce takes effect if she performs any one of them. So, if the husband allows his wife to speak to her sister after having conditioned the divorce on that, the divorce has occurred, unless there was a specific intention or a reason that ceased to exist. Repeating the word "taliq" (divorced) three times with the intention of emphasis or without any specific intention counts as a single divorce. If the intention is for three divorces, then three divorces occur. The divorce of a menstruating woman is valid according to the preponderant opinion. If the wife performs the act upon which the divorce was conditioned before the condition was set, it has no effect. The husband's statement "Every time you become lawful, you return" requires elaboration. It is not permissible for the husband to harm a righteous wife to force her to ransom herself, unless she has shown defiance (nushooz).

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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