What is the ruling regarding a father who favors one of his wives and her children in terms of housing and ownership? Is his action considered a lack of justice between the wives and children? And what should the children do in this situation?

It is not permissible for a father to favor one of his children with a house over the others. He must be fair among his children in granting gifts. Merely writing the house in the son's name does not constitute ownership until he takes possession and seizes it. If the father dies before the son takes possession, the gift becomes void, and the house becomes an inheritance to be divided among the heirs.

The father should be advised to amend his behavior. If he does not respond, assistance can be sought from someone who influences him. If the mother contributed to completing the house with the intention of partnership, she has a right in it, either by the value of what she paid or by owning a portion of the house commensurate with her contribution. However, if she was a donor, she has no right.