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The question

Is testifying to a sales contract, without having been present at the agreement or the handover of the money, considered a false testimony, and what is its expiation if it is so?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the seller and the buyer acknowledge the sale in your presence, and you bear witness to that, then your testimony is valid. You are not required to know the details of the contract or to be present during the delivery of the two عوضين (countervalues/considerations); because the intent is to bear witness to the occurrence of the sale, and it has occurred.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
67404
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy