Is the marriage considered void if the contract was made with the word "virgin" and the girl is not, with the groom's knowledge, and is their cohabitation considered adultery throughout their lives, and if it is void, what is the solution?
Whoever commits indecency before the marriage contract has committed a grave sin, and they must repent. According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible for them to marry until after repentance and purification (Istibra'). However, some scholars do not stipulate repentance for the validity of the marriage, and their view is acceptable. The statement of the marriage officiant that the wife is a virgin does not invalidate the contract, and the contract is valid as long as it has fulfilled its conditions and pillars.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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