Is it permissible for a husband to request a car through a company that allows its employees to own cars via "Leasing," knowing that the company pays the interest, not the employee? And is this considered complicity in usury if he receives the car from a former employee?

The questioner did not mention how the company purchased the car, but assuming it was bought with a usurious, forbidden contract, then benefiting from it afterwards is permissible according to the most preponderant opinion. This is because the prohibition was attached to the liability of the company, not to the car itself. Therefore, there is no harm for the questioner's husband in taking and using the car.