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Does a divorce issued with the notional intention of pleasing one's mother, yet without a genuine intention of divorce, take effect, and does this fall under the ruling of duress or jest?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Divorce does not occur by mere writing unless accompanied by intention or utterance; otherwise, it does. Therefore, you are not bound by a divorce merely by writing, although it is preferable not to repeat such an act. Obedience to the mother in divorcing one's wife is not obligatory.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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