What is the ruling on paying zakat on crops and fruits in monetary value after selling them, instead of paying it at the time of harvest?

If crops and fruits are sold after their ripeness becomes apparent, the zakat is due from the seller. If the sale occurs before their ripeness becomes apparent, without a condition for cutting, then the sale is void, and the fruits and crops remain the property of the seller, and he is responsible for their zakat. However, if the sale occurs before their ripeness becomes apparent with a condition for cutting, or if they are sold along with the land, then the seller is not obligated to pay their zakat, as they have exited his ownership before the zakat became due.