Back to search
The question

Is it permissible for the grandfather to sell his house to his daughters, then for it to be sold again by another person (who bought it) to the daughters and registered in court, in order to disinherit his disobedient son and his other daughter, and to protect his divorced daughter and her children from homelessness after his death, knowing that he owns nothing but this house and his pension?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

There is no doubt about the prohibition and ugliness of disobeying one's parents. It is even more reprehensible when an elderly parent is beaten. The recompense is of the same kind as the deed, so they must repent immediately. As for the grandfather selling the house, if it was a real sale with all conditions fulfilled, then the house belongs to the buyer, and the heirs have no right to it. If it was a nominal sale, then it is considered a gift. One should then consider whether the gift was completed during the grandfather's health and whether possession was taken; if so, it is enforceable. However, if it was completed during his death illness, it takes the ruling of a will, and the house belongs to all heirs. This matter requires direct consultation with specialized scholars, and in case of dispute, the matter should be referred to the court.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
168931
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy