Is it permissible for a woman to stipulate to her husband that she name all their children and that he not marry another woman?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Naming the newborn is the father's right, unless the woman stipulated in the marriage contract that she has this right and the husband agreed to it. This is because the default for conditions is validity, and "Muslims are bound by their conditions."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/5024
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 5024
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy