Is the wife who married an already married man, and he failed to fulfill his promises to provide for her and her children, deprived her of childbearing, and concealed their marriage from his family and first wife, wronged or a wrongdoer? And does she have the right to supplicate against him if she is wronged?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The husband is not obligated to financially support his wife's children, but he is obligated to provide for her (the wife) in a reasonable manner. He must be just in dividing his time among his wives. It is not permissible for him to prevent his wife from having children or to compel her to conceal their marriage to forfeit her right to inheritance. If the situation is as described, then the husband is the oppressor. Patience and seeking Allah's help are advised if remaining with him causes less harm than divorce.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/131713
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 131713
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy