My husband is no longer able to have intercourse, so is this a sufficient reason to ask for a divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband's inability to engage in sexual intercourse is a temporary matter, the wife is not permitted to seek a divorce solely on that basis. Rather, it is preferable for her to assist her husband in seeking treatment. However, if the husband is not cured and the wife is harmed as a result, she then has the right to seek a divorce due to harm.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/150000
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 150000
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy