My husband is no longer able to have intercourse, so is this a sufficient reason to ask for a divorce?

If the husband's inability to engage in sexual intercourse is a temporary matter, the wife is not permitted to seek a divorce solely on that basis. Rather, it is preferable for her to assist her husband in seeking treatment. However, if the husband is not cured and the wife is harmed as a result, she then has the right to seek a divorce due to harm.