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What is the ruling regarding a husband telling his wife, "You are unlawful to me," after two previous divorces that occurred in a state of anger?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

A man's utterance of explicit divorce or writing it down while angry does not prevent the divorce from taking effect, unless the anger reaches a level that deprives him of awareness. Therefore, if your brother uttered the divorce the first time and then wrote it down the second time while conscious, both divorces have occurred. As for the saying "you are unlawful for me," if he intended divorce by it, then it is a divorce; if he intended ẓihār, then it is ẓihār; and if he intended an oath or intended nothing, then it is an oath.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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