Does a divorce power of attorney – with an indefinite term – become void if the husband has intercourse with his wife after its issuance, and is it permissible to use it later in the event of a new dispute?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The question is unclear due to the failure to specify the intent of the power of attorney: Is it for divorce (issuing the divorce pronouncement) or for the divorce procedures, or both? If the power of attorney is for issuing the divorce, then it becomes void if the husband has intercourse with his wife, and the divorce does not occur unless the husband initiates it anew. However, if the power of attorney is for the legal divorce procedures after the husband has himself issued the divorce, then there is no impediment to utilizing the initial power of attorney as long as the husband has not revoked it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/193127
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 193127
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy