Is a woman's marriage to a married man without the knowledge of his wife, and his failure to treat both wives justly, unlawful or lawful?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
There is no objection to a man marrying without the knowledge of his first wife, but he must be just between his wives, otherwise, he commits a sin. The warning for one who is not just between his wives is that he will come on the Day of Resurrection with one side of his body drooping. Therefore, you must remind him of this warning so that he may fear Allah and be just between you both.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/96678
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 96678
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy