Is what was described in the head of Fatwa No. 126889 considered consummation or not? And if a sheikh gave a fatwa to the husband that it was not consummation, so he paid half the Mahr, then another sheikh gave a fatwa to the wife that it was consummation, does the husband have the right to take her back during her 'Iddah?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The aforementioned is a valid seclusion () that necessitates the full Mahr (dowry), which is the view of the majority of the Salaf and jurists. However, some scholars are of the opinion that the full Mahr is not necessitated by seclusion alone. If the spouses consult someone they trust and act upon their , there is no objection. Otherwise, the ruling of the judge resolves the dispute.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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