Is a husband's saying to his wife, "Go to your family's house, for I have no need of you," and his saying to her brother, "Come and take your sister to your house," considered a divorce, even though his intention was to expel her and not to divorce her?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This wording is among the allusions through which divorce occurs if the husband intends it. So, if the husband intends to effect a divorce, it occurs. But if he merely intends to expel her and for her to go to her family's house, it is not considered a divorce. The determining factor is his intention and aim.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/81872
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 81872
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy