Is a husband's saying to his wife, "Go to your family's house, for I have no need of you," and his saying to her brother, "Come and take your sister to your house," considered a divorce, even though his intention was to expel her and not to divorce her?

This wording is among the allusions through which divorce occurs if the husband intends it. So, if the husband intends to effect a divorce, it occurs. But if he merely intends to expel her and for her to go to her family's house, it is not considered a divorce. The determining factor is his intention and aim.