Is the wife obligated to obey her husband if he calls her for foreplay and playfulness without intercourse, by analogy with the obligation to obey him if he calls her for intercourse?
A wife must obey her husband if he calls her for intercourse, foreplay, or endearment, because this is one of the most essential rights of the husband. It also strengthens affection and harmony between them. The Prophet's Sunnah indicates the permissibility for a man to play with his wife, and that it is a rightful act for which he is rewarded, unlike vain amusement. A wife's obedience in this matter is a good deed and a means to keep him chaste and fulfill the purposes of marriage, which include affection and procreation. Disobedience, however, may lead to aversion, estrangement, and the husband's displeasure with her.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/8045