Is the wife obligated to obey her husband if he calls her for foreplay and playfulness without intercourse, by analogy with the obligation to obey him if he calls her for intercourse?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A wife must obey her husband if he calls her for intercourse, foreplay, or endearment, because this is one of the most essential rights of the husband. It also strengthens affection and harmony between them. The Prophet's indicates the permissibility for a man to play with his wife, and that it is a rightful act for which he is rewarded, unlike vain amusement. A wife's obedience in this matter is a good deed and a means to keep him chaste and fulfill the purposes of marriage, which include affection and procreation. Disobedience, however, may lead to aversion, estrangement, and the husband's displeasure with her.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/8045
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 8045
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy