Is the fiancé's statement to his fiancée, "I'm done with you, you deceived me," considered a divorce, especially if he said it jokingly and in a context where he did not intend divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the Shariah contract has been concluded, then you are a legal wife, and the rulings of divorce apply to you. If what your husband uttered was an intimation of divorce (such as "I have separated from you") and he intended jest and did not intend divorce, then no divorce occurs, because intimations do not result in divorce except with intention. However, if the Shariah contract has not been concluded, then his words have no effect.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 107654
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