Is it permissible to use perfumes given to me by my father, knowing that they are designated as gifts for doctors, and my father justified this by saying that the company does not compensate him for the losses he incurs?

If the father paid money to someone under his management by company order, and the company did not give him his right, and he found no legitimate way to claim his right, then it is permissible for him to take the equivalent of his right from the company's money or perfumes, which is known as "triumphal acquisition of one's right," provided that he does not take more than his due, and he is safe from exposure and punishment, and he cannot obtain his right through legal channels. However, if the company does not owe him money, then this is not permissible for him.

It is not permissible for pharmaceutical companies to give gifts such as perfumes to doctors, because this leads to corruption of integrity and harm to patients, and it is considered a forbidden bribe, even if it is called a gift.