What is the ruling on marriage and its documentation through a system of shared ownership of property due to ignorance, and what should be done? And what is the ruling on one who stipulated this condition out of ignorance at the time of both the Islamic and civil contracts?

If the lawful marriage contract fulfills the conditions and pillars, then the contract is valid. The conditions mentioned after the contract are void because they contradict Islamic law, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Every condition not in the Book of Allah is void." If the contracting party agreed to these conditions out of ignorance, the contract is valid, and the condition is void.