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The question

Is the husband's lack of knowledge of the details of what happened considered a concealment of facts by the wife, and does the oath of prohibition fall upon her if she deliberately conceals details to preserve the marital relationship?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed concerning swearing by the prohibition of one's wife. Some have considered it to be ẓihār, others ṭalāq (divorce), and yet others an oath (yamīn). Some have differentiated based on the swearer's intention.

If the wife does not lie, then there is nothing upon the husband. However, if she lies, then the ruling depends on the husband's intention: - If he intended ṭalāq, then divorce occurs. - If he intended ẓihār, then the expiation for ẓihār is incumbent upon him. - If he intended only to prohibit sexual intercourse, then he must offer the expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn).

If the husband does not know whether his wife told the truth or lied, some scholars have held that divorce occurs religiously (diyānatan).

It is advisable to avoid words of divorce and prohibition and to shun the causes of anger.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy