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The question

Does the divorce of a man who does not pray count, given that he divorced his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, and he gave her the divorce paper while she was menstruating?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce during a period of purity in which the husband had intercourse with his wife is a valid divorce according to the four madhhabs. Giving the divorce paper during menstruation or timing the divorce itself during menstruation does not affect its validity; both are effective despite being bid'ah (innovations). A person who completely abandons prayer is a disbeliever, and it is not permissible for his wife to remain with him. If the husband wishes to reconcile with his wife, she should not accept unless he repents sincerely and commits to prayer.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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