Why did God specifically mention the Children of Israel in His exalted verse: "Because of that, We decreed upon the Children of Israel that whoever kills a soul unless for a soul or for corruption [done] in the land – it is as if he had slain mankind entirely. And whoever saves one – it is as if he had saved mankind entirely," even though the reason for this ruling was the action of the two sons of Adam, who were not present at that time?

Some scholars have mentioned wisdoms behind the mention of the Children of Israel in the Quran, among them that they were the first upon whom a scripture was revealed containing rulings on murder and warnings against it. This was due to their excessive shedding of blood and their killing of prophets. Ibn al-Arabi explained that Allah specifically mentioned the Children of Israel because the Torah was the first book revealed that contained written rulings, unlike the previous scriptures. Al-Shawkani stated that the mention of the Children of Israel is specific to them because the context is enumerating their transgressions, and because they were the first nation upon whom warnings concerning the killing of souls were revealed, and the matter was made severe for them due to their excessive shedding of blood and their killing of prophets.