What is the ruling on a Muslim woman marrying a European man who outwardly declared his conversion to Islam at Al-Azhar to solemnize the marriage, but conceals his Islam from his family and friends, does not adhere to any of the rituals or obligations of Islam, and still drinks alcohol and eats pork?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A man's conversion to Islam is not valid merely by uttering the two Shahadas without adhering to the outward rituals of Islam. If he does not adhere to them and submit to them, then his marriage is void, and separation from him is obligatory, based on the Almighty's saying: "And do not marry polytheists until they believe." If children result from this void marriage, they are attributed to him. One must be cautious of marrying someone who feigns Islam fraudulently.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/172080
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 172080
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy