What is the meaning of the ignorance that is considered an excuse for the non-occurrence of a suspended divorce, and does it include ignorance of the Sharia ruling?

Our advice to you is to turn away from questions related to divorce due to your excessive obsessive thoughts about it, lest you ruin your life. Divorce is in the hands of the husband, and the wife is not asked about his intention regarding ambiguous divorce statements. Ignorance of what a condition is hinged upon is excusable for its perpetrator. However, ignorance of the ruling has no bearing, and divorce occurs with it, whether the condition is hinged upon one's own action or that of another. And if the husband is unconcerned with the condition or did not intend to urge or restrain his wife, then divorce occurs in any case.