Is uttering the oath of divorce to a non-Muslim wife considered a valid divorce, and is the husband sinful for leaving his foreign wife without an official divorce for more than 10 years due to a financial dispute that the husband claims is baseless?

Divorce does not occur by mere intention according to the majority of scholars. Rather, it occurs through an explicit utterance issued by the husband, provided he is not under duress. The occurrence of divorce does not depend on its documentation in courts, but documentation has become a necessity to protect rights. If the husband swears by divorce, it does not occur unless he breaks his oath. If the wife requests money unjustly, the husband is not obligated to pay it, and the judiciary shall decide the dispute.