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The question

What is the ruling on a purchasing transaction in which a buyer requests a commodity and pays its price, then the company buys it at a lower price and delivers it to the buyer, regardless of whether the company is an agent for the seller or not, and regardless of whether the buyer knew that the company did not own the commodity at the time of purchase or not? And does this transaction fall under the category of salam (forward) sale or selling what one does not own?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If you are an agent for the company or the owner of the commodity, and you are authorized to sell it at a higher price so you can take the difference, then there is no blame upon you. This is because the hand of the agent is like the hand of the principal. However, if you are not an agent and you display pictures of products you do not own, the general rule is that it is impermissible to sell what one does not own, except for what has been exempted, such as salam (forward) selling. Nevertheless, there are valid scenarios for this, such as being an agent for the seller or the buyer, or purchasing the commodity first and then selling it to the one who desires it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
186258
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy