What is the ruling on a purchasing transaction in which a buyer requests a commodity and pays its price, then the company buys it at a lower price and delivers it to the buyer, regardless of whether the company is an agent for the seller or not, and regardless of whether the buyer knew that the company did not own the commodity at the time of purchase or not? And does this transaction fall under the category of salam (forward) sale or selling what one does not own?
If you are an agent for the company or the owner of the commodity, and you are authorized to sell it at a higher price so you can take the difference, then there is no blame upon you. This is because the hand of the agent is like the hand of the principal. However, if you are not an agent and you display pictures of products you do not own, the general rule is that it is impermissible to sell what one does not own, except for what has been exempted, such as salam (forward) selling. Nevertheless, there are valid scenarios for this, such as being an agent for the seller or the buyer, or purchasing the commodity first and then selling it to the one who desires it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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