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The question

What is the ruling on a husband having intercourse with his wife two weeks after he told her: "You are unlawful to me for a month," intending punishment and not divorce or Dhihar?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man forbids his wife for a month without intending divorce or ẓihār, and he did not intend anything specific, or he intended an oath, then he is liable for an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffārat yamīn). This is based on the opinion of Sheikh Ibn Uthaymeen, who cites the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "Deeds are only by intentions," and the verse from the Quran: {O Prophet! Why do you forbid what Allah has made lawful for you, seeking the pleasure of your wives? And Allah is Forgiving, Merciful. Allah has already ordained for you the dissolution of your oaths. And Allah is your Protector, and He is the All-Knower, the All-Wise} (Quran 66:1-2).

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
103864
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy