Back to search

What is the ruling on a husband having intercourse with his wife two weeks after he told her: "You are unlawful to me for a month," intending punishment and not divorce or Dhihar?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

If a man forbids his wife for a month without intending divorce or ẓihār, and he did not intend anything specific, or he intended an oath, then he is liable for an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffārat yamīn). This is based on the opinion of Sheikh Ibn Uthaymeen, who cites the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "Deeds are only by intentions," and the verse from the Quran: {O Prophet! Why do you forbid what Allah has made lawful for you, seeking the pleasure of your wives? And Allah is Forgiving, Merciful. Allah has already ordained for you the dissolution of your oaths. And Allah is your Protector, and He is the All-Knower, the All-Wise} (Quran 66:1-2).

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy