Is the current marriage, entered into after a controversial, innovated (bid'i) divorce, considered invalid (fasid) and unlawful (haram)? And is it null and void, and a departure from the methodology of Ahl al-Sunnah wal-Jama'ah, to adopt and act upon the fatwa of Ibn Baz, may Allah have mercy on him? And does the invalidity of this act entail the invalidity of all acts of worship, such as Hajj, prayer, fasting, and Zakat, thereby making the questioner fall under the meaning of the two Quranic verses: "And We shall turn to whatever deeds they did and make them as scattered dust" (Al-Furqan 25:23) and "Say, 'Shall we inform you of the greatest losers as to their deeds? Those whose effort is lost in worldly life, while they think that they are doing good work'" (Al-Kahf 18:103-104)? And is the questioner a heretic (zindiq) for departing from the madhhab of Imam Malik to the madhhab of Imam Ahmad in his fatwa? And are the obsessions, distractions, and pangs of conscience that dominate him the voice of truth calling him to separate from his wife and family, or are they whispers from the accursed Satan?

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