Is the questioner's inheritance of the land that her grandfather allocated to her father, to the exclusion of her paternal aunts, permissible in Islamic law? And what should she do concerning her paternal aunts, knowing that this allocation took place approximately twenty-five years ago in the form of a "sale" to his male children?

The questioner did not clarify whether the grandfather gifted the land during his lifetime, wrote it as a will, or sold it. The answer varies depending on each case:

1. If the grandfather gifted it to his sons without his daughters: The gift is void due to its injustice. The land then belongs to all children, males and females, and must be divided according to the prescribed Islamic shares. Whatever was taken from it must be returned to the heirs for division. 2. If the grandfather wrote it as a will for his sons: This is a bequest to an heir, and it is not enforceable unless the other heirs consent. Otherwise, the land belongs to all of them and is to be divided according to the prescribed Islamic shares, and whatever was taken from it must be returned. 3. If the grandfather sold it to his sons as a genuine sale: The land belongs to the sons. However, if the sale was fictitious or for a negligible price, then this is a ploy to disinherit the daughters, and it is forbidden. The land then reverts to all heirs and is divided among them, and any amount exceeding the prescribed Islamic share must be returned.