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The question

Is the wife obligated to allow her husband to have sexual intercourse with her during the period prior to the pronouncement of Khulʿ, if they have agreed upon Khulʿ?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Khul' (divorce by mutual consent with compensation paid by the wife) is not valid except through a specific صيغة (formula), which is the utterance of the word "khul'" or a term carrying its same meaning, whether explicit or implicit. The husband must pronounce it for its ruling and effects to be established. If the conditions for khul' are met and the husband pronounces it, the woman is not permitted to allow him access to her (for intimacy) because a minor irrevocability (baynunah sughra) has occurred. However, if it was merely an agreement or a promise and the husband did not pronounce khul', she is still his wife, and she is permitted to allow him access to her.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
4571
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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