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The question

Is the presence of intention a prerequisite for the validity of a vow's occurrence, or does a person become bound by it merely by uttering the word "I vowed" inadvertently, without prior intention?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

One who utters a vow unintentionally, as if their tongue slips, is not bound by anything. However, for one who intends the utterance but not the meaning, such as a jester or one at play, their vow is valid and binding because they intended the pronouncement. This is supported by the statement of Umar: "Four things are binding in all circumstances: emancipation, divorce, marriage, and vows."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
48886
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy