Is it permissible to demand financial rights after the wife was forced to waive them to facilitate the divorce, and does the wife's refusal of divorce prove that she does not dislike her husband?

If the divorce was not at the wife's request or due to her disobedience, and her family wronged her by forcing her to waive her rights, then she has the right to take the matter to court to settle the dispute. Otherwise, she does not have the right to demand that they pay her those rights.