Is a divorce that took place between a couple before a judge by agreement considered an شرعي (Islamically lawful) divorce, given that the husband claims after a period that he did not divorce her?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man utters the words of divorce without compelling coercion, or writes the divorce and intends for it to take effect, then the divorce occurs. And the woman may marry another once her waiting period () from him has ended.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/72280
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 72280
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy