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The question

Is it valid for a husband to take back his wife without her knowledge or intention, following a divorce by implication that she is unaware of, such that the husband pronounces the رجعة (return) to himself, or has intercourse with her intending the رجعة?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The wife's knowledge or consent is not a condition for the revocable divorce (raj'ah). The revocable divorce is effected verbally, such as by saying "I take my wife back," or by intercourse with the intention of reconciliation. It is valid without intention according to some scholars.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
109822
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy