Does a prohibition take effect if the husband says: "You are unlawful to me if you go with anyone else," and he meant going to the market with his mother, then I went with my father after he dropped me off at my family's house and I forgot his prohibition? And what is the ruling if he retracts his prohibition after a period of time?

If a husband makes the prohibition of his wife contingent upon her going out, intending only to prevent her from going out with his mother and brother, then there is no violation (hanath) on his part if she goes out with her father or someone else. This is because an oath is based on the intention of the swearer. If he made the prohibition contingent upon her simply going out with someone other than him, and the wife went out forgetfully, then there is also no violation, according to the preponderant opinion.

We issue fatwas (religious edicts) that the ruling on the prohibition depends on the husband's intention (divorce, dhihar, or an oath). If he did not intend anything, then it entails expiation for an oath (kaffarat yamin).

As for retracting the suspension of the prohibition: Ibn Taymiyyah's view permits it and dissolves the oath if he intended divorce, but not if he intended an oath by Allah or intended nothing. There is no explicit statement from him regarding retracting dhihar.

However, the view of the majority of scholars (which is the preponderant opinion according to us) is that it is not possible to retract this prohibition, whether the husband intended divorce, dhihar, or anything else.