What is the ruling on my saying: "The man recited such-and-such a verse" or "He recited the words of Allah," meaning that he recited or read it? And is this considered disbelief (kufr)?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
There is no disbelief or apostasy in what the questioner said, and his mention that this word implies disbelief is incorrect. He should abandon these whisperings, as they contain evil.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/128466
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 128466
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy