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The question

Does a wife's agreement to return to her husband after he has divorced her, and her reluctant nod to return to her country, count as a re-instatement during the waiting period? And what is the ruling on the husband's saying, "I intended to take her back" secretly without the wife's knowledge?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The husband is advised to consult Dar al-Ifta (House of Fatwas) to clarify his intention behind the words he uttered. If the husband uttered the words "I intended to take her back or return her" and meant conjugal return (raj'ah), then it is a valid and recognized conjugal return. His statement is considered if he claims it within the waiting period (). Conjugal return occurs through an explicit statement and through an implicit one accompanied by intention, and it does not require the wife's consent. If he claims it after the expiration of the waiting period (iddah) and the wife denies it, then her word is accepted. Both spouses must strive to stabilize their marital life and avoid divorce.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
186768
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy