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Does a husband's divorce of his wife three separate times via text messages count, given that the first divorce occurred during a period of purity when he had intercourse with her, and the other divorces occurred during periods when he had not taken her back, and the husband was in a state of anger and tension, and he later confirmed that he was bewitched and heard a voice that made him hate his wife?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

We advise referring the matter to the Sharia Court and explaining the situation to them. If that is not possible, then the matter should be presented to trustworthy scholars in your country.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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