Does a husband's divorce of his wife three separate times via text messages count, given that the first divorce occurred during a period of purity when he had intercourse with her, and the other divorces occurred during periods when he had not taken her back, and the husband was in a state of anger and tension, and he later confirmed that he was bewitched and heard a voice that made him hate his wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
We advise referring the matter to the Court and explaining the situation to them. If that is not possible, then the matter should be presented to trustworthy scholars in your country.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/114524
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 114524
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy