Did the three aforementioned divorces occur: the first suspended upon a specific action, the second under duress, and the third with the word "Talqana" without the intention of divorce due to not having returned the wife after the second divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The first divorce () is valid because the divorce was contingent upon a condition that has now occurred. The preponderant opinion is that a contingent divorce takes effect upon the fulfillment of its condition. The second divorce does not take effect if the husband was coerced into it by his wife threatening to kill herself, as this falls under duress (ikrah). The third divorce is valid because an explicit pronouncement of divorce does not require intention; rather, it takes effect merely by uttering it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 128867
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