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The question

Did the three aforementioned divorces occur: the first suspended upon a specific action, the second under duress, and the third with the word "Talqana" without the intention of divorce due to not having returned the wife after the second divorce?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The first divorce () is valid because the divorce was contingent upon a condition that has now occurred. The preponderant opinion is that a contingent divorce takes effect upon the fulfillment of its condition. The second divorce does not take effect if the husband was coerced into it by his wife threatening to kill herself, as this falls under duress (ikrah). The third divorce is valid because an explicit pronouncement of divorce does not require intention; rather, it takes effect merely by uttering it.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
128867
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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