Is a husband sinful if he refrains from caressing and kissing his wife, and is content with only having intercourse with her? And does depriving her of complete enjoyment necessitate sin? What is the standard for the obligatory enjoyment for the wife? Is it reprehensible or forbidden for the husband to withdraw after satisfying his desire? And does the jurists' discussion regarding the minimum obligatory intercourse for the wife refer to the entire act of coitus, or do they mean only penetration? If the husband's shortcomings in foreplay before intercourse are established, is this a valid reason for the wife to seek separation?

Scholars have differed regarding the obligatory extent of intercourse for the husband. The most preponderant opinion is that it is obligatory to the extent of the wife's need and his capability, and this is the choice of Ibn Taymiyyah. It is obligatory for a man to have intercourse with his wife in a befitting manner. As for playing with and caressing the wife during intimacy and enabling her to fulfill her desire, it is recommended, and leaving it is disliked. So, if a man has intercourse with his family, he should be truthful with her and not rush her until she fulfills her need. If the husband does not fulfill his wife's right in bed, she has the right to seek divorce or khul'.