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The question

Is the husband sinful for refusing to be intimate with his wife if she requests intercourse, whether directly or by insinuation, and regardless of whether he has an excuse?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The husband is not obligated to respond to his wife’s request for intercourse every time she asks, whether he has an excuse or not, provided he does not intend to harm her. The husband is not like the wife in the obligation to respond upon request, because he is the owner of the sexual organ, and he may not be energetic at all times. He is obligated to keep her chaste according to his ability and her need. It is part of perfect companionship that he has intercourse with her when she desires it, unless he has an excuse.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
116215
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy