Is the wife sinful if she does not inform her husband of his desire for intercourse?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The question is unclear. However, if the intention is to ask about a wife whose husband desires intimacy but does not explicitly request her to come to bed, then she incurs no sin if she does not proactively offer herself to him. It is obligatory for her to respond to him if he calls her for intimacy, provided she has no valid excuse. But if he does not call her, then she is not obliged to offer herself.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/169915
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 169915
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy