Is the wife sinful if she does not inform her husband of his desire for intercourse?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The question is unclear. However, if the intention is to ask about a wife whose husband desires intimacy but does not explicitly request her to come to bed, then she incurs no sin if she does not proactively offer herself to him. It is obligatory for her to respond to him if he calls her for intimacy, provided she has no valid excuse. But if he does not call her, then she is not obliged to offer herself.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/169915
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 169915
- Imported
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