Is His – the Exalted – saying: "And for them therein are spouses purified, and they will abide therein eternally," specific to the women of Paradise, to the exclusion of men? And why was the purification of men not mentioned in the verse as the purification of women was mentioned?

What Ibn al-Qayyim mentioned regarding the purity of the wives of the people of Paradise is well-known among the exegetes. Their purity is in their bodies, morals, and actions; they do not menstruate, nor give birth, nor excrete feces or urine. As for the men, they are purified from blameworthy morals and perfected with their virtues. There is no disagreement among them, nor hatred, nor envy. There are no excess fluids or corrupt substances in their mouths or noses that they would need to expel, nor do they urinate or defecate.