Does the process of selling a computer device with some parts that I don't have in stock, and which will be purchased after an agreement with the customer and the payment of a partial amount, fall under the category of "selling what one does not possess"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the contract between you and the buyer has been concluded, and the commodity was not entirely or partially in your possession at the time of the contract, then the contract is invalid because you sold what you do not own. The permissible form is a sale based on a promise, with both parties having the option to complete or not complete the contract.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/49966
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 49966
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy