Must a sewing fee be paid to a tailor who denied receiving the fabric, then the judge ruled that he had received it and sewn the garment?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the tailor denies receiving the fabric and then sews the garment, he is entitled to the agreed-upon wage after performing the work, because he sewed the garment for you at your request, not for himself. Ibn al-Rif'ah said: "If the laundrer denies receiving a garment, then launders it, is he entitled to the wage or not? Yes." It is stated in Asna al-Matalib: "If he laundered the garment then denied it, then produced it, the wage becomes due. Or if he denied it then laundered it not for himself, but for the purpose of the hire, or if he left it unspecified then produced it, the wage also becomes due."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/152676
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 152676
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy