Is the husband's refusal to allow his wife to work after marriage, subsequent to his initial agreement during the engagement, considered a violation of his word and of Islamic Sharia, given the wife's insistence on working?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the wife stipulated that she remain in her job and the husband agreed, then he has no right to prevent her. However, if she did not stipulate this, then he has the right to prevent her, and she must obey him. It is advisable to deal with the matter with wisdom and gentleness, for a woman's decision to stay in her home is better for her, and gentleness never enters anything without adorning it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/93277
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 93277
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy