What is the ruling regarding a husband saying to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you do such and such," and then the wife does it more than once?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
What your husband uttered is a suspension of your being forbidden to him contingent on the specific act he intended. The preponderant view is that the forbidding of a wife depends on the intention of the one who utters it. If he intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār. If he intended divorce, it is divorce. And if he intended an oath, it is an oath. Since you have performed the act upon which your husband suspended the forbidding, what he intended—whether divorce, ẓihār, or an oath—has come into effect.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 179526
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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